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Understanding the IPv6 tunnel

Started by kevball2, July 23, 2009, 07:52:35 AM

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Just getting into Ipv6 and trying to get my head around the whole "tunnel" approach of routing IPv6

from what i understand a 6 to 4 tunnel is created from my IP to you Router IP to route IPv6 traffice in the allocated /64 or /48 block you that you assign. at that point i should be able to assign a static IPv6 address from the same block (let go with the block you assigned to me 2001:470:1f11:d8::/64)

i can assign

now my question is about the gateway (these are all windows vista/2008 or up boxes) would i assign the gateway as the 2001:470:1f10:d8::2 address since this is the Tunnel Ip assigned to me.  does this seem right or am i looking at it the wrond way?


FYI, this is a 6in4 tunnel, not 6to4. 6to4 uses 2002::/16 and relies on the closest 6to4 relay.

If you are assigning IPs out of the routed /64 to the same machine the tunnel terminates on, you already have your default IPv6 route out set so don't have to set it again.

If you are trying to provide your LAN with IPv6 connectivity, then you'd assign 2001:470:1f11:d8::1 to your LAN facing NIC, and use whatever routing you'd like with Windows, like DHCPv6 or RA. If you statically configure hosts on the LAN, then their default GW is 2001:470:1f11:d8::1.


thanks for clarifying,

i guess i was a little confused how the internal NIC was finding the route to the IPv6 endpoint tide to my external IP, but the IP6Tunnel create is visible to all NIC's on the box correct? so setting the internal NIC as the gateway it will still know of the route to use the external IP attached to the internet facing NIC to get to the internet.
do you know of a good Ipv6 Calculator? i am working configuring UAG (unified applications gateway) from MS and there is some heavy use of IPv6 for their direct access VPN solution (i need to split up and put in a /48 /56 and /96)